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Post by Androga Erindalant on Sept 19, 2005 13:34:02 GMT -6
Sil Ch6: Of Fëanor and the Unchaining of Melkor
Valinor was in the fullness of its glory now the Three Kindreds of the Eldar were gathered there and Melkor was chained. The Eldar got fully grown in body and spirit then. Also Finwë’s most beloved son Fëanor was born in that time. Míriel was the name of his mother, and she had a surpassing skill in weaving and needlework. But Fëanor’s birth consumed most of her body and spirit, and she told Finwë she would never bear a child again. Finwë was sad to hear this, as he wanted many children, and he asked Manwë for advice. Manwë delivered Míriel to the care of Irmo in Lórien, but as she went to sleep in his gardens, her spirit left to the Halls of Mandos. Finwë gave most of his love to his son after her passing. Fëanor grew quickly and he became the most skilled of all the Noldor. He wedded Merdanel, the daughter of the great smith Mahtan, and she gave him seven sons. Finwë now took a second wife. She was Indis the Fair, a Vanya, whom Finwë loved greatly. She gave him two sons: Fingolfin and Finarfin. But Fëanor wasn’t pleased by this wedding, and he didn’t love Indis much, nor her two sons.
The Noontide of Valinor came closer to its end as three ages had passed and Melkor was released from his prison. He was brought before Manwë again, and there he humiliated himself and asked for forgiveness. He promised he would help the Valar to heal the many wounds he had caused. But he was jealous when he looked to the glory of the Valar and the Children of Ilúvatar, and hid those thoughts for Manwë while waiting for the good time to take revenge. Manwë believed Melkor was cured of evil and granted him pardon, but made him remain within the gates of Valmar still. The Noldor were glad of all the knowledge Melkor could provide them, and they learned many new skills of him. Fëanor however hated Melkor most of all the Eldar, and he didn’t took any advice from him, but he also was caught in Melkor’s webs.
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Post by Androga Erindalant on Sept 19, 2005 13:36:21 GMT -6
Finwë took Indis as his second wife. What do you think the reaction to this news must have been in those elder times, both in Aman as in the real world? What do you think Tolkien’s oppinion was on second marriages?
Fëanor wasn’t pleased by this marriage. Do you think much would have been different if Finwë hadn’t married again after Míriel died? In what way you think the history would have changed if he hadn't?
Not all the Valar were happy with Manwë’s decision to pardon Melkor. Mandos, Tulkas and Ulmo are mentioned as not in favour in this chapter. Which of the other Valar would also oppose you think? Who of them would be in favour? Please also give the reasons of your thoughts.
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Post by Andorinha on Mar 9, 2007 10:06:44 GMT -6
Openning Observations:
Before I answer your directed questions, Androga, I'd like to set the scene a bit:
I think a good deal of Melkor's personality, his function among the Valar, and even the incidental episodes of his interactions within the realm of Arda are based, more or less, on the parallel situations we can see in the Norse "god" Loki. Loki is a personification of strife and discord, a trickster god who lies, cheats, steals, and perverts all that comes into contact with him. In the final end, he is the chief foe of the other Aesir, and figures prominently in their eventual destruction. Loki brings forth the Great Fenris Wolf; he acts as "father" of dragons by siring the prime reptile, the Midgard serpent; and he creates the underworld of Hel, his daughter, where the dead are congregated. Melkor/ Morgoth likewise figures prominently in sub-creating the great wolf Carcharoth, in breeding up the fearsome dragons, and in Utumno-Angband he creates the hells of Middle-earth. (John Lindow, pp. 216-220)
It is interesting to note, that the Valar seem almost stupid at times, and it is hard for me to understand why they do not, early on, recognize the evil of Melkor and move to isolate him before he can do much damage. But, this apparent apathy makes some sense if we realize that JRRT was working to a pre-set pattern here, following in many ways the tale of woe as it is set out in the Norse sagas. Melkor is long able to move among the Valar freely because Loki was likewise allowed to move among the Aesir. Melkor is considered to be a sort of "brother" to Manwe, just as Loki becomes a "brother" in blood to Odin. Melkor is deep in all the counsels of the Valar, and he pretends to aid the other gods in establishing the good order of Arda -- while all the time he works secretly to mar and undo their efforts toward realizing the harmonies of the song of creation. Loki acts in this fashion also, helping the Aesir with one hand, while corrupting their order and rule with the other: "We have recounted how the Aesir tolerated the presence of evil, personified by Loki, ... how they weakly followed his advice, allowed him to involve them in all manner of difficulties... Too late now, the gods realized that an evil spirit had found a home among them, and banished Loki to earth, where men, following the god's example, listened to his teachings, and instead of cultivating virtue became addicted to crime." (Guerber, p. 263)
Gradually, the other Aesir grow weary of Loki's constantly troubling actions, his infractions against the peace and good order of the universe, and they judge him, capture him, cast him down, and bind him for a long age. Melkor/ Morgoth is also (finally) found out, captured, and sentenced to an age of imprisonment, tightly bound. Unrepentant, both Loki and Morgoth, once they've slipped their bonds, will figure in the final struggles that will close down the universes of the Norse saga and of Middle-earth.
______________ Brian Branston Gods of the North, 1980, pp. 165-176, "Loki"
H.A. Guerber Myths of Norther Lands, 1895, pp263-273, "The Twilight of the Gods"
John Lindow Norse Mythology, 2001, pp. 216-220, "Loki"
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Post by Andorinha on Mar 11, 2007 0:00:00 GMT -6
Androga asks:
1. "Finwë took Indis as his second wife. What do you think the reaction to this news must have been in those elder times, both in Aman as in the real world? What do you think Tolkien’s oppinion was on second marriages?"
This is a loaded question, Androga! LOl! It requires some understanding of the social etiquettes of the Valar, the Elves, Tolkien, the Victorian Christian context that suffused JRRT's thinking, and then the actualities of the post WW One era of England.
Tolkien often neglects to inform us concerning the rites and rituals of his sub-created realm. Aule and Yavanna are "paired," so also are Manwe and Varda, but are they "legally," and ritualistically married? Can they even procreate, and does "marriage" require at least the ability, or desire to procreate? Certainly a lesser Ainu like Melian can procreate with an Elf (Thingol), but were even they "married?"
Just what would constitute a marriage in Arda, either in the immortal lands or in Middle-earth? Without this knowledge, it is hard to tell how the Valar and the Elves would have viewed "second marriages." Apparently such serial unions were possible, and I do not recall any grumbling about Indis and Finwe, except that which came from Feanor. Tolkien then, as narrator, tells us that in hindsight, considering Feanor's later career as a great egoist and even a kin-slayer, that maybe, if there had been no second marriage, the spoiled brat Feanor might not have turned out to be such an objectionable character:
"In those unhappy things which later came to pass, and in which Feanor was the leader, many saw the effect of this breach within the house of Finwe, judging that if Finwe had endured his loss and been content with the fathering of his mighty son, the courses of Feanor would have been otherwise, and great evil might have been prevented..." (The Silmarillion, hb version, p. 65)
I find this statement rather puzzling. From what we are told of Feanor, taking away the situation of sibling rivalry that the second marriage produced would have had little impact upon his drive, his ambition, his egotism. He still would have made the Silmarils, still would have held them back from the Valar (and so missed the opportunity of reviving the Two Trees), he still would have dashed off to Middle-earth to recover his stolen property from Morgoth, would still have incurred the Ban of the Valar and the Doom of Mandos. In my understanding, it was Feanor's deeply flawed personality that led him into his sociopathic, criminal acts -- not his father's second marriage.
Consequently, I do not think we ever get to really understand how the Elves, Maiar and Valar viewed "second marriages," just this vague statement that some disapproved of it because they thought Feanor's character was alterred (for the worse) by it...
So, can we find in JRRT's later works, especially as he developed the themes of LotR, any more examples of second marriages? I do not recall any special damnation of second marriages, but neither do I specifically recall any examples of second marriage among the Numenoreans, Rohirrim, Dwarves, or Hobbits.* Maybe his avoidance of this theme tells us that Tolkien himself was averse to second marriages whatever the situation? I know that Tolkien expressed some dissatisfaction with C.S. Lewis for contracting a marriage with a divorced woman, but was this Lewis's second marriage as well?**
Certainly in the long rush of English history, second marriages were (and are) common, so even with a Victorian standard of "prudery" as his mindset (and the Victorians themselves were never as consistently "prudish" about second marriages as JRRT seems to have been!) Tolkien, in the post World War One era was decidedly behind his own times!
______________ *check RotK Hobbit geneological tables in the indices, and appendix A III Durin's Folk
**Letter #49, Carpenter, pp. 59-60, has a draft letter to C.S. Lewis, 1943, expresses JRRT's belief that "Christian marriage, which is binding, and lifelong..." may tell us that JRRT was against divorce, but does it also imply that a widow or widower should not have a second marriage? Page 61 continues the theme of divorce being unacceptable to JRRT's personal interpretation of Christianity, but again, second marriage in the case of the death of one partner does not seem to get any mention...
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Post by fanuidhol on Mar 11, 2007 6:35:44 GMT -6
I don't think Tolkien was against second marriages after the death of a spouse even though, as far as I can recollect also, Finwe's as the only one. But, there is a romantic notion that there is only "one person meant for each of us" that Tolkien might have been emphasizing in those cases where there is a death. Elves second marriages are complicated since they are supposed to be "immortal" ('Laws and Customs among the Eldar' p 225 from "Morgoths Ring"). Hobbits almost never married again (Letters p 293). But, by this statement there must be occasions when they did. There are estrangements. Ents, for one. 'Aldarion and Erendis' from UT, is another example. Sorry got to go. Fan
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Post by fanuidhol on Mar 13, 2007 4:27:52 GMT -6
Andorinha brought up interesting points and questions in response to Androga's questions relating to Finwe's second marriage and Feanor.
"Just what would constitute a marriage in Arda, either in the immortal lands or in Middle-earth?"
""In those unhappy things which later came to pass, and in which Feanor was the leader, many saw the effect of this breach within the house of Finwe, judging that if Finwe had endured his loss and been content with the fathering of his mighty son, the courses of Feanor would have been otherwise, and great evil might have been prevented..." (The Silmarillion, hb version, p. 65)
"I find this statement rather puzzling. From what we are told of Feanor, taking away the situation of sibling rivalry that the second marriage produced would have had little impact upon his drive, his ambition, his egotism. He still would have made the Silmarils, still would have held them back from the Valar (and so missed the opportunity of reviving the Two Trees), he still would have dashed off to Middle-earth to recover his stolen property from Morgoth, would still have incurred the Ban of the Valar and the Doom of Mandos. In my understanding, it was Feanor's deeply flawed personality that led him into his sociopathic, criminal acts -- not his father's second marriage."
According to Morgoth's Ring 'Laws and Customs of the Eldar' (which looks to have been written in connection to Finwe/Muriel and the second marriage question) there is a ceremony for Elves but the marriage occurs with the union of bodies. p 212. I am not sure but, I think this might be near to Catholic thought. Isn't it a relatively easy procedure to get a marriage annulled if it wasn't consumated?
I love what Verlyn Flieger has to say in Splintered Light, 2nd edition p 114, in regard to Feanor's refusal to give up the Simarils. "Subsequent events or deeds would not be externally different, but the motives behind them could be different."
I think this is applicable to my understanding of the Silm quote above. The evil talked about may be in Feanor's attitude rather than just his actions. Fan
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Post by Andorinha on Mar 15, 2007 10:06:43 GMT -6
Fanuidhol, thanks for the reserch items!
I had forgotten (like utterly!) Letter #214, where Tolkien gives us his 1958/ 59 thoughts on Hobbit social structure. I remember, now, using this letter in a discussion concerning just how the institution of "matriarchy" applied to Smeagol's tribe.
Of particular relevance here is:
"As far as I know Hobbits were universally monogamous (indeed they very seldom married a second time, even if wife or husband died young)..." Letter #214, p. 293.
To my eyes, this statement does admit that there were second marriages, but that they happened rarely even in the case of an early spousal death. Here we can, maybe, get a glimpse of Tolkien's personal thought system overriding the reality of pre-industrial social systems, especially in the agricultural village community. Few men or women remained long unwed after the death of a first spouse, the nuclear family being the basic unit of economic production, one's social status, "independence," and even one's survival depended upon having a wife-husband unit to split the chores, and produce the next generation's work force who would in turn care for their elders when age made labour too great a burden for them. The way Tolkien outlines the Shire society, second marriages should have been very common especially among the labouring class, farmer types. Additionally, in pre-industrial England, widows and widowers of the gentry, those who had land and other forms of wealth that obviated their own manual labor, were alway highly sought for second, and third marriage alliances to build up family fortunes. Here, the countryside novels of Thomas Hardy give us good examples of this re-marriage mechanism, as do the continental-peasant works of George Sand.
Of course, the Middle-earth corpus is the world of JRRT, and he gets to set it up anyway he likes (LOL!) even if it debouches sharply from the reality of the societal models he was using.
I think you've nailed this one, Fan: "... there is a romantic notion that there is only 'one person meant for each of us' that Tolkien might have been emphasizing in those cases where there is a death."
Now I've got to check the Catholic Encyclopaedia for orthodox RC views on re-marriage to see how near, or far from these standards, JRRT's personal views might be. I'm also wallowing my way through the RC official lines on pre-destination vrs freewill for another discussion...
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Post by Andorinha on Mar 15, 2007 10:21:23 GMT -6
RE: Fanuidhol, reply #5
"I love what Verlyn Flieger has to say in Splintered Light, 2nd edition p 114, in regard to Feanor's refusal to give up the Simarils. 'Subsequent events or deeds would not be externally different, but the motives behind them could be different.'"
You know, Fan, I think I'd disagree with VF here. I see it from a different perspective, but wouldn't a less egotistic Feanor -- one capable of giving up his Silmarils for the common good -- have meant that he would probably have enough of a social conscience that he could not have stolen the ships of the Teleri, and committed the great crime of the Kinslaying? If his ego were not so powerful, perhaps he would not have tried to go to Middle-earth at all? Not much of a story then...
I think, to make the subsequent "adventures and crimes" of Feanor plausible, JRRT had to make this Elf a supreme egoist, had to make him the kind of person who would/ must refuse to give up the artifacts of his highest achievement. A Feanor able to sacrifice the Silmarils to "re-animate" the Trees, would not have been Feanor at all.
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Post by Andorinha on Mar 17, 2007 12:27:44 GMT -6
How does one "prove" the death of an Elf? or That "obdurate" woman did it all!
I wonder if some of Tolkien's ambivalence concerning the re-marriage of Finwe might not be due to the attested fact that Elves do not really die? In the case of Miriel, her body remains behind, uncorrupted in the care of the maidens of Este, like a person in one of our own hospitals kept on life-support systems. But her spirit had completely fled that body, and it seemingly was not to return, ever. So was she actually/ legally dead?
If she was not fully dead, if she still "lived-on" in some fashion, I suppose Finwe's second marriage might have overtones of bigamy, is this what Tolkien hints at? Is this supposed to be the root of the evil that later falls upon Finwe's house?
In the 1977 version Silmarillion these points are left unclear, and it is hard for me to determine if the troubles that eventuate are the fault of Feanor's personality, or if there is some "inherited," Greek Tragic curse that comes from Finwe's choice to contract a second marriage, an abomination, if Miriel is still in some manner to be considered yet alive.
I suppose these questions bothered JRRT as well, for his revisions of the Quenta Simarillion, appearing in Morgoth's Ring, HoME X, pp. 256 - 273, have a long and legalistic section added to the narrative. Here, pp. 258 - 260, the gods themselves are asked to decide this question of potential bigamy, embodied in the "Statute of Finwe and Miriel."
In this statute, the Judge-god, Mandos, rules that an Elven marriage may be ended "By the will of the Dead, or by the doom of Mandos. By the will of the Dead, if they refuse ever to return to the life of the body; by the doom of Mandos, if he will not permit them to return. For [then] a union that was for the life of Arda is ended, if it cannot be resumed within the life of Arda." (HoME X, p. 259)
With this pronouncement, the way was "legally" open for Finwe to contract his second marriage with Indis. So, I guess JRRT was trying, in his last revisions to make clear the idea that the second marriage of Finwe was not the cause of the curse, and we must look only to the twisted, selfish character of Feanor for the root of the evil that would soon come.
But then, JRRT throws me a curve. In a "necromantic" turn, the Valar actually track down the spirit of Miriel (p. 260) and put the question to her, are you really going to stay "dead" by your own will? Miriel's spirit seems almost childish, petulant in its answer, she will remain "dead" -- so there!
"Then Vaire said to Mandos: 'The spirit of Miriel hath dwelt with me, and I know it. It is small, but it is strong and obdurate: one of those who having said this will I do make their words a law irrevocable unto themselves. Unless constrained, she will not return to life or to Finwe, not though he should wait until the ageing of the world.' " (p. 260 section 19, emphasis mine)
Wow! Is JRRT trying to throw all the blame on Miriel? Her stubborness in demanding the right to stay "dead" forces poor Finwe into a second marriage, which in turn plays upon the egoistic jealousies of Feanor, who in his own turn runs savagely amok among his fellow Elves...
I still tend to see Feanor's warped personality as the primary cause of all the evils that followed, but did Tolkien see it that way? It seems to me that he was at first trying to blame Finwe, then later blame Miriel, anything to reduce the actual guilt of Feanor?
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Post by Stormrider on Mar 17, 2007 21:28:35 GMT -6
Very intersting! I had always wondered if Miriel was completely dead.
I always had the impression she was so weak and worn out from birthing Fëanor that she couldn't come back even if she wanted to. Therefore, what type of life would she have had? It was in her best interest not to return and stay dead.
However, I did not think Finwë was forced into a second marriage. I thought he wanted to remarry. Indis was a Vanya and very different from his first wife. He loved her very much even though he still could not get Miriel out of his heart.
I think Finwë's over-abundant love for Fëanor played a big part in Fëanor's anger over his father's second marriage and his hatred toward Indis. Finwë loved Fëanor too much and after the son's marriage, the father found another to love. Fëanor wanted all his father's love to belong to him.
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Post by Andorinha on Mar 18, 2007 8:47:44 GMT -6
Stormrider, a few clarifications! (or further speculative confusions!)
1) Re Stormrider's "I always had the impression she was so weak and worn out from birthing Fëanor that she couldn't come back even if she wanted to. Therefore, what type of life would she have had? It was in her best interest not to return and stay dead."
From just the 1977 Silmarillion version, put together by Christopher Tolkien, I also had the impression that Miriel had very little control over her own death, that she was exhausted, used up, broken, and apparently in so much pain that continued life was impossible for her. But, from the later, fuller version of the Morgoth's Ring version, HoME X, pp. 256-71) I am not sure. It sounds as if she deliberately refuses "ressucitation," nor does she give any definite reason for this, no statement that her pain is so severe that she cannot live. Maybe I am misinterpreting this, but it seems to me she dies, and stays dead primarily as an act of self will? The gods even discuss the advisability of forcing her to come back to life, but decide this would violate her right to choose her own fate. Sounds almost like a suicide? Beats me.
2) RE Stormrider's "However, I did not think Finwë was forced into a second marriage. I thought he wanted to remarry. Indis was a Vanya and very different from his first wife. He loved her very much even though he still could not get Miriel out of his heart."
I agree that Finwe marries Indis because he wants to, my use of the word "forces" was italicized to show that, in my interpretation (somewhat tongue in cheek!), there is something less than a situation of altruistic, story-book romance occurring here. Finwe does not entirely pine away when he finds Miriel is gone, and he realizes that she will not come back. Nor does he withdraw into permanent widower-hood -- rather he waits some 12 years in mourning, "bereaved."
"Finwe lived in sorrow; ... and sitting beneath the silver willows beside the body of his wife he called her by her names. But it was of no avail, and Finwe alone in all the Blessed Realm was bereaved of joy. After a while he went to Lorien no more... All his love he gave now to his son..." (HoMe Book X, section #9, p. 258, my emphasis) A decent interval of time having passed, Finwe complains to the Valar: "Alone among the Eldar I have no wife, and must hope for no sons save one, and for no daughter. Whereas Ingwe and Olwe beget many children in the bliss of Aman. Must I remain ever so?" (HoMe Book X, section #10, p. 258)
Exactly why is Finwe not content to raise his one son alone? Why does he, in effect, so strongly complain 'other Elves get to have lots of kids, why can't I?' If Finwe was so devoted to Feanor, in whom the likeness of Miriel was so evident, why does he want more children?
Additionally, as I read these passages, there seems to be no overriding, all-consuming attachment between Finwe and Miriel. She is exhausted and wills herself to die leaving Finwe behind to cope on his own; and Finwe, is (after a number of years) ready to put aside his mourning and find a new companion. This is not the absolute love of a Juliette and Romeo, where the death of one leads inevitably and immediately to the death of the other. Does JRRT mean us, at this point in the story, to assume that Finwe and Miriel were somehow mismatched? Miriel might love Finwe, but apparently not enough to stop her self-willed death for his sake! (Hmmm, is Miriel's self-induced death a sort of Elvish suicide?) Or is JRRT trying to tell us that Finwe and Miriel were not true, "soulmate" lovers? In some fashion, both Finwe and Miriel could do without the other? At any rate, they do "split-up," and Finwe does petition for the legal right to form a second marriage union; Feanor is spoiled by his father; and Feanor, who seems born with an overwhelmingly egoistic character, never gets the firm paternal correction that might have allowed him to learn self-control and humility. Disasters then occur...
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Post by fanuidhol on Mar 18, 2007 9:33:13 GMT -6
1958 This appears to be the pivotal year in regard to the possibility of second marriages, unless it was 1959 (lol). Some things can't be precisely dated. I have been digging into Hammond and Scull's two volume JRR Tolkien: Companion and Guide both the "Chronology" and "Reader's Guide" for some help to determine what influenced Tolkien. Andorinha seems to concentrate on Tolkien's Roman Catholic-ness, while I tend to think that somewhat more personal events may have lead the story in a particular direction. Some findings from Chronology: In February 1958, Edith had an operation which appears to have been an "exploratory" one as the doctors did not find anything terribly wrong. (p 520) I'm sure that the possibility of Edith's death and how that would affect the rest of his life would have crossed Tolkien's mind. Late August 1958, Tolkien and George Sayer had a short conversation in which Tolkien expressed worry over CS Lewis's wife being a divorcee (p 530) Much of Tolkien's time in 1958 was devoted to Edith, the dissatisfaction about the Zimmerman movie deal of LotR, and the translation of 'The Acrene Wisse'. Reader's Guide and Letters: The first indication of a second marriage for Finwe may not be dated more precisely than probably Autumn 1958 according to "Reader's Guide": 'Of Feanor and the Unchaining of Melkor' (p 302). Tolkien worked on this through 1960. * Letter # 212, an unsent draft of a continuation of letter 211 (dated 10/14/58), contains a paragraph on Muriel. (Letters p 286) By the way, this paragraph has an accusatory flavor that everything thereafter was in part Muriel's fault. Letter # 214 which contained the section on Hobbit marriage was written late 1958 - early 1959. * I was surprised at this. I expected Feanor's resentment of Finwe's second marriage to be a long standing element of the story. Some elements do date from the 1920's, mostly in relation to Melkor and the Silmarils. It looks like that it was as late as 1951 that Feanor started taking on "special" significance. Fan
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Post by fanuidhol on Mar 19, 2007 13:29:23 GMT -6
Letter # 49 is a draft to CS Lewis written approximately 1943 commenting on a pamphlet Lewis wrote called "Christian Behaviour". Within this draft letter are Tolkien's thoughts on Christian marriage and divorce.
What does the word "permanent" mean to you? How about "lifelong"? To me, permanent means forever -- "beyond the circles of the world" so to speak. Lifelong is far less "permanent".
Tolkien wrote two statements on the permanence of marriage and monogamy, but changed the word permanent to lifelong.
I realize that the word lifelong can be ambiguous. Just who's life are we speaking of -- the deceased or the survivor? Permanent would have served if Tolkien meant that the survivor had to continue to be monogamous to a dead spouse.
On an entirely different note: The relatively late addition of Finwe's marriage to the golden-haired Indis may have actually come about as an explanation for Elven hair-color genetics. No proof, yet. Just a thought. Fan
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Post by Andorinha on Mar 19, 2007 14:01:25 GMT -6
Excellent research, Fan! There is a lot here for me to digest. The biggest surprises, for me, are: 1) the relative late date of the material on Feanor's "resentment" of the second marriage, 2) the "accusatory" tone of Letter # 212, p. 286:
"In the Elvish legends there is record of a strange case of an Elf (Miriel, mother of Feanor) that tried to die, which had disastrous results, leading to the 'Fall' of the High-elves. The Elves were not subject to disease, but they could be 'slain': that is their bodies could be destroyed, or mutilated so as to be unfit to sustain life. But this did not lead naturally to 'death': they were rehabilitated and reborn and eventually recovered memory of all their past: they remained 'identical'. But Miriel wished to abandon being, and refused rebirth."
This passage, to my way of thinking, is significant not only for the blame it heaps upon Miriel for Feanor's later misbehaviours, but it also tends to re-inforce the idea that Miriel's death was a conscious act of suicide. A final suicide, without regeneration or "rehabilitation."
Why would Miriel be the only (so far as I am aware) Elf to voluntarily insist upon the full anilhilation of her own existence? Was there something in her own make-up that resulted in this kind of a dysfunction? Or was she "normal" until the trauma of the birth of Feanor? Was the stripping of her own life force to feed extra power into the formation of Feanor her own act? Or did Feanor take life from his mother by his own force of being, to the point that he left her unable to live?
In the first sense, if Miriel deliberately gave Feanor her life force beyond a prudent measure, was she creating an instrument of "illegal magic" in her son? So that Feaor becomes the repository of her force, just as Sauron put his power (much of it) into his Ring? I think what I'm trying to say here is that Miriel may have created a "too-powerful" son as an act of pride, just as Aule created the Dwarves. A "too-powerful" Feanor was not a part of the natural order, and he would therefore be at odds with the universe, just as the Dwarves were not expected in Arda, and therefore they would always be at odds with the creations of Yavanna.
Alternatively, did Feanor "rape" his own mother (rape originally in latin = theft), taking from her the vital essence that she would have needed in order to continue living? In this scenario, Feanor would have been a spirit of overwhelming egotism, drinking so deeply of his mother's nourishment that she would herself perish.
Either way, Miriel "giving" too much power to Feanor, or Feanor taking too much from her, an act of greed and pride would have been the basic element of Feanor's creation. No wonder he turned out to be something of a monster among the Elves, and his existence involved all the Noldor in their Great Fall.
Sigh, just speculating here...
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Post by Stormrider on Mar 19, 2007 17:14:17 GMT -6
Wow! What thoughts, Andorinha! But I can see how either way might create an egotistical monster as Fëanor!
But how strong Fëanor must have been as a fetus to force his mother's "essence" (that is the best word I can think of) into himself! I can see how in this instance, Miriel would not wish to come back to life and see what this child would grow into! She must have suspected she had given birth to a strong, defiant, self-indulgent son. How much did she know of Morgoth/Melkor? Had she ever faced him or come near enough to him to get a sense of his "essence"? Could she have sensed something in her unborn child that had equalled Morgoth/Melkor?
But if she gave him all her own "essence" on her own, what was she thinking?! Did she wish to create a mighty son and then after her sucked her dry, realize she created something beyond her own designs? Was she ashamed and afraid and that was behind her decision to "commit suicide"?
Wow! Very stupifying thoughts to consider.
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