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Post by Stormrider on Feb 24, 2007 8:19:26 GMT -6
I did some quick research and the name "Sindar" was give to the elves of Telerin origin who lived in Beleriand and did not complete the Great Journey to Valinor. "Sindar" means "Grey Elves". they are not of the Light (since they did not go to Valinor) nor are they Dark (Avari--those who refused the summons of the Valar).
They were Elves of the Twighlight. I am not exactly sure what this means. There was Complete Guide to Middle-Earth by Robert Foster. So how were these Sindar Elves involved in that?
They followed Elwë (Thingol) who did plan to go to Valinor (so they didn't outrightly refuse the summons) but were waylaid when Elwë met Melian the Maia. She took on human form and together they found the kingdom of Doriath.
Why would a Maia interfer in the Valars' summons of the Elves to Valinor? Why wouldn't she have urged Elwë and his people to continue on to Valinor after they fell in love? Was it too late to go?
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Post by Andorinha on Feb 26, 2007 9:40:16 GMT -6
Stormrider, you have come up with some very intriguing questions here. I'd forgotten the material on the Legolas thread -- thanks for finding it. I'm going to follow your lead and start checking Silmarillion and UT, I'll see what I can find as well.
The question you raise concerning the Maia Melian is something I never thought about, she does have a sort of "rebellious" situation here, maybe classifiable along with Osse's "act of rebellion" when he talked some of the Teleri into staying outside Valinor on the shores of Tol Eressea; but her act seems not to be as problematic as Aule's creation of the Dwarves. That might be an interesting approach towards understanding how the Valar/ Maiar worked -- apparently they have a good deal of freedom for self-expression, fulfilling their own desires? Was Melian going against the rules when she failed to expedite Elwe's removal to Valinor, or was she bound into a fated destiny?
Stormrider, Fanuidhol (and any one else out there!) have you ever read anything that discussed Melian's action as a sort of "rebellion?" Apparently Radagast, in JRRT's Letters, was considered a bit of a "rebel/ failure" for paying too much attention to beasts and not enough to Men, Dwarves and Elves, so how much freedom of self-expression do the "good" Valar/ Maiar have before they can be classed as "failures," or simply "evil," like Sauron, and the Balrogs?
LOL -- I'm getting far away from the Hobbit line here, maybe we need another topic if the discussion continues on this heading?
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